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ZOO 250
TEST 2

1- Which of the following functions is associated with the skin?
    a- fat production
    b- regulation of body pH
    c- protection against ultraviolet radiations
    d- vitamin C production

2- Body fat in the subcutaneous tissue does all of the above, except:
    a- varies with age and sex
    b- functions as a padding
    c- is a source for quick energy
    d- accounts for the chubby appearance in babies
    e- play a role in insulation

3- Which of the following statements is true:
    a- The epidermis has numerous blood vessels
    b- The most prevalent cells are the melanocytes
    c- The dermis is superficial to the epidermis
    d- The epidermis has nerve ending for pain
    e- Keratin is the substance found in the stratum corneum

4- Normal skin color results from all except:
    a- the presence of melanin pigment
    b- the amount of hemoglobin in the blood
    c- the level of blood circulation
    d- the amount of bilirubin in the blood
    e- the exposure to sun rays

5- Apocrine glands:
    a- secrete cerumen
    b- secrete a watery sweat
    c- secrete a salty sweat
    d- are found in the genitalia and axillary regions
    e- are most numerous on the forehead

6- In response to an increase in body temperature, the following events occur except:
    a- sweating
    b- constriction of the blood vessels
    c- increase heart rate
    d- the skin becomes red

7- The organs of heavy touch are:
    a- the pain receptors
    b- the Meissner corpuscles
    c- the pacinian corpuscles
    d- the haversian corpuscles
    e- none of the above
 

Label the drawing:
8- Apocrine gland
9- Eccrine gland
10- Dermal papilla
11- Sebaceous gland
12- Hair shaft

True or false:
13- The basement membrane is the layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis
14- The hair is a dermal structure
15- The lunula is the growing region of the nail
16- Cyanosis is a bluish color of the skin due to high level of carbon dioxide

17- Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system:
    a- internal support and protection
    b- provide attachment for the muscles
    c- calcium and phosphate storage
    d- red blood cell formation
    e- all of the above

Label the drawing:
18- Endosteum
19- Diaphysis
20- Epiphysis
21- Periosteum
22- Spongy bone

23- A cord of connective tissue that attach bone to bone is called a(n):
    a- tendon
    b- ligament
    c- sarcomere
    d- bursa
    e- aponeurose

24- Chondroblasts produce:
    a- ligament
    b- cartilage
    c- bone
    d- blood
    e- epithelium

25- A fracture in the shaft of the bone would be a break in the:
    a- epiphysis
    b- epiphyseal disk
    c- diaphysis
    d- articular cartilage
    e- periosteum

26- Which cell is responsible for bone formation:
    a- osteoblast
    b- osteoclast
    c- fibroblast
    d- chondroblast
    e- all of the above

27- The following statements about the periosteum are true, except:
    a- it is located around the bone
    b- it is a connective tissue
    c- it is responsible for longitudinal bone growth
    d- it has osteoblasts

28- Osteons:
    a- are found in spongy bone tissue
    b- lack blood vessels
    c- are the basic units in compact bone tissue
    d- do not contain osteocytes

29- Red blood cells are produced by the:
    a- red bone marrow
    b- yellow bone marrow
    c- lymph nodes
    d- periosteum
    e- endosteum

30- In the developing fetus, what kind of tissue is the forerunner of the long bones:
    a- elastic connective tissue
    b- dense fibrous connective tissue
    c- epithelium
    d- hyaline cartilage
    e- loose connective tissue

31- The first region of ossification formed during early embryonic development are known as:
    a- primary ossification center
    b- secondary ossification centers
    c- cartilage ossification centers
    d- medullary cavity ossification centers
    e- growth plate

32- Which of the following factors does not affect bone growth?
    a- mechanical stress
    b- calcium intake
    c- lipid intake
    d- exposure to the sun
    e- growth hormone

True or false:
33- Osteomalacia is a softening of the bone
34- Rickets is due to a lack of vitamin D
35- Osteoporosi is common in young women
36- Growth hormone affects long bones only
37- Exercise strengthens bones

Match the articulating bones
38- Head of femur                             a- acetabulum
39- Head of humerus                         b- olecranon process
40- Mandible                                    c- ulnar notch of radius
41- Olecranon fossa                          d- glenoid cavity
42- radial notch of ulna                      e- mandibular fossa

43- The bones forming the coxal bone are:
    a- Ilium, sacrum, ischium
    b- Ilium, sacrum, coccyx
    c- Ilium, ischium, pubis
    d- Ischium, sacrum, pubis
    e- Ischium, ilium

44- Sinuses are found in the following bones, except:
    a- maxillary
    b- sphenoid
    c- ethmoid
    d- parietal
    e- frontal

45- Which bone does not form a part of the nasal cavity:
    a- ethmoid
    b- frontal
    c- maxillary
    d- vomer
    e- inferior nasal concha

46- Features of the cervical vertebra are:
    a- presence of the spinous process
    b- presence of the transverse foramen in the transverse process
    c- articulation surfaces with the ribs
    d- short and stocky vertebral body
    e- long spinous process

47- Bones are completely ossified by age:
    a- 5 year-old
    b- 8 year-old
    c- 15 year-old
    d- 20 year-old
    e- 25 year-old

True or false:
48- The acetabulum is found in the humerus
49- The lacrimal bone is part of the orbital cavity
50- There is 7 carpal bones
51- The calcaneus is one of the tarsal bones
52- The ulna in on the side of the small finger

53- Which of the following statements concerning sutures is false:
    a- They are immovable in adults
    b- The opposing bones in the joint interdigitate (=are locked)
    c- the tissues between the bones is formed of dense cartilage
    d- they are found in the skull

54- The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of:
    a- suture
    b- syndesmosis
    c- gomphosis
    d- synchondrosis
    e- symphysis

55- An example of symphysis is:
    a- elbow joint
    b- joint between mandible and temporal bone
    c- joint between ribs and vertebra
    d- joint between two pubic bones
    e- joint between femur and pelvis

56- A movable joint is:
    a- synarthrotic
    b- amphiarthrotic
    c- diarthrotic
    d- fibrous
    e- cartilagenous

57- Which of the following is a synovial joint?
    a- Intervertebral joint
    b- knee joint
    c- sacroiliac
    d- sternum-clavicle
    e- all of these

58- The following statements about the synovial fluid are true except:
    a- it lubricates a joint
    b- it provides nourishment to the cartilage
    c- it is located between the capsule and the ligament
    d- it has an egg white consistency
    e- an inflamed joint contains excess synovial fluid

59- Turning the sole of the foot outward is called:
    a- pronation
    b- supination
    c- eversion
    d- inversion
    e- protraction

60- A sprain is:
    a- an inflammation of the bursa
    b- a tear of the ligament
    c- a tear of the tendon
    d- a broken bone
    e- a muscle tear