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ZOO 251
TEST 2

1- The following cells are leukocytes except:
    a- Monocytes
    b- Thrombocytes
    c- Eosinophils
    d- Neutrophils
    e- Lymphocytes

2- Macrophages are derived from:
    a- Neutrophils
    b- Eosinophils
    c- Thrombocytes
    d- Lymphocytes
    e- Monocytes

Match cells and functions:
3- Neutrophils                         a- Release histamine
4- Basophils                            b- Phagocytosis
5- Lymphocytes                      c- Fight parasite
6- Eosinophils                         d- Immune reaction
7- Monocytes

8- The hematocrit is:
    a- The percentage of the volume of packed cells in the blood
    b- The percentage of the volume of packed white cells in the blood
    c- The volume of the plasma
    d- The volume of red blood cells
    e- A blood test measuring the blood's ability to coagulate

9- Which of the following is a function of the blood:
    a-Delivery of oxygen to tissue cells
    b- Transport of metabolic wastes from cells
    c- Maintain normal fluid and electrolyte balance
    d- Transport certain ions and hormones
    e- All of the above

10- Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein?
    a- Fibrinogen
    b- Albumin
    c- Gammaglobulins
    d- Hemoglobin
    e- Glycogen

11- The only blood cells that possess a nucleus when mature are the:
    a- Thrombocytes
    b- Erythrocytes
    c- Leukocytes
    d- Platelets
    e- Fibrinogen

12- Hemoglobin:
    a- Gives white blood cells their color
    b- Transport oxygen
    c- Is normally found in plasma and red blood cells
    d- Turn cherry red when bound to carbon dioxide
    e- All of the above

13- Red blood cells are removed by:
    a- The spleen only
    b- The bone marrow only
    c- The pancreas only
    d- The spleen and pancreas
    e- The spleen and liver

14- The intrinsic pathway of blood clotting is triggered by:
    a- The polymerisation of fibrinogen into fibrin
    b- The presence of calcium
    c- The presence of vitamin D
    d- The release of tissue thromboplastin from damaged tissue
    e- Contact of blood with a foreign substance

15- Heparin:
    a- Is a potent anticoagulant
    b- Stimulates blood coagulation
    c- Stimulates erythropoeisis
    d- Stimulates vitamin K synthesis
    e- Stimulates the immune system

16- The products of degradation of hemoglobin are:
    a- Bilirubin and biliverdin only
    b- Globin and heme
    c- Albumin and heme
    d- Albumin and iron
    e- Globin and albumin

17- Factors affecting erythropoieisis are all, except:
    a- Iron
    b- Vitamin B 12
    c- Vitamin B 1
    d- Erythropoeitin
    e- Intrinsic factor

18- Erythropoietin is produced by the:
    a- Liver
    b- Spleen
    c- Kidney
    d- Lung
    e- Bone marrow

True or false:
19- Thrombocytes are platelets
20- Pernicious anemia is due to lack of iron
21- Thrombin is a coagulation factor
22- Albumin from the plasma plays a role in coagulation

23- Type O blood:
    a- Has no agglutinogens on the red blood cells
    b- Has O agglutinogens on the red blood cells
    c- Has both A and B agglutinogens on the red blood cells
    d- Has both A and B agglutinogens in the plasma
    e- Has no agglutinin in the plasma

24- Rh negative mothers that receive RhoGam injections are given that injection:
    a- To desensitize the fetus
    b- To prevent the baby from desensitizing the mother
    c- To protect the father
    d- To induce the formation of antibody (anti Rh) in the mother
    e- To prevent sensitization of the mother

25- The bulk of the heart wall consists of the:
    a- Endocardium
    b- Myocardium
    c- Epicardium
    d- Pericardium
    e- Fibrous pericardium

26- The pace maker of the heart is:
    a- The AV node
    b- The SA node
    c- The bundle of His
    d- The Purkinje fibers
    e- The ventricles

27- The portion of the EKG that indicates venticular contraction is the:
    a- P wave
    b- The PQ interval
    c- The QRS complex
    d- The T wave
    e- The TP interval

28- The pericardium is:
    a- The muscular layer of the heart
    b- The innermost thin lining of the heart
    c- A membranous sac that encloses the heart
    d- The membrane located against the lung
    e- The skeleton of the heart

29- Blood within the pulmonary veins return to the:
    a- Right atrium
    b- Right ventricle
    c- Left atrium
    d- Left ventricle
 
30- The AV valve that is located on the same side of the heart as the origin of the aorta is the:
    a- Mitral valve
    b- Tricuspid valve
    c- Aortic semilunar valve
    d- Pulmonary semilunar valve
 
31- The role of the papillary muscles and chordae tendinae is to:
    a- eject blood from the ventricles
    b- prevent the AV valves from protruding into the atria
    c- close the semilunar valves
    d- cause the atrial content to eject into the ventricles
    e- do nothing since papillary muscles and chordae tendinae are part of the muscles

True or false:
32- The "lub" sound corresponds to the closing of the semilunar valve
33- Ventricle contraction occurs during diastole
34- Diastole corresponds to the rest period
35- The coronary arteries fill during systole
36- Blood from the pulmonary artery is rich in oxygen
37- The circumflex artery is an coronary artery

38- Difference(s) between the arterial and venous walls (is) are:
    a- Arteries are wider than veins
    b- Arteries have valves, and elastic fibers
    c- Veins have valves and elastic fibers
    d- Arteries have elastic fibers, veins have valves
    e- Arteries have valves, veins have elastic fibers

Label the drawing:
39- Aorta
40- Common iliac artery
41- Brachial artery
42- Ulnar artery
43- Femoral artery

44- The product of the stroke volume and the heart rate is known as:
    a- The cardiac reserve
    b- The cardiac output
    c- The total volume of blood
    d- The blood pressure
    e- The pulse

45- Blood pressure is influenced by the following factors except:
    a- Blood volume
    b- Blood viscosity
    c- Respiratory rate
    d- Heart rate
    e- Blood vessel diameters

46- Receptors sensing blood pressure are located in the:
    a- Hypothalamus
    b- Medulla oblongata
    c- Carotid and aortic bodies
    d- Carotid and aortic sinuses
    e- Atria

47- Excitation of the vagus nerve will result in:
    a- An increase in heart rate
    b- Vasoconstriction
    c- A decrease in heart rate
    d- An increase in body temperature
    e- None of the above

Label the drawing:
48- Brachiocephalic vein
49- Subclavian vein
50- Jugular
51- Basilic vein
 

True or false:
52- Lower extremity edema is due to right-sided heart failure
53- Hydrostatic and osmotic pressures play a role in the movement of fluid into the tissues
54- Kidneys play a role in blood pressure regulation
55- Ther cephalic vein is located in the head
56- The azygos vein drain blood from the upper abdomen
57- The portal vein empties in the inferior vena cava
58- Epinephrine increases heart rate

59- The celiac trunk is formed by:
    a- The gastric, splenic and hepatic arteries
    b- The gastric, portal and mesenteric arteries
    c- The portal, mesenteric and intestinal arteries
    d- The portal, mesenteric and intestinal veins
    e- The gastric, portal and renal arteries

60- The following statements about the circle of Willis are true, except:
    a- The major veins bringing blood to the circle are the vertebral and internal carotid veins
    b- The circle of Willis is a back up system for blood circulation in the brain
    c- It is located at the base of the brain
    d- It is surrounding the pituitary gland
    e- The posterior communicating arteries are part of the circle of Willis